04 November 2006


Sorry to keep jumping on this, but the linguist in me got a-hopping. I noticed this quote by Haggard in the Yahoo! story.
Never had a gay relationship with anybody, and I'm steady with my wife, I'm faithful to my wife.
Now, if you look at the wording of this statement, Haggard has not said that he didn't have sex with a man. He said he never had a gay "relationship" with anybody. That doesn't mean he didn't have sex with a man. He could have had repeated sexual encounters, but he is simply insisting (as the gay cowboys did) that he "ain't queer". Also, check out his verb tense when talking about his wife. No one is arguing whether he is or is not faithful to his wife. It is being said that he "hasn't been" faithful to his wife. A small tense thing, but I think this might be more important as this gets a little bit more clear.

Although I guess he does sort of actually deny it here. So much for my forensic linguistics future... (Moreover, Andrew Sullivan has much more of a soul than me.)
So hypothetically, according to you, I can admire a man's penis in the shower, but the moment I put it in my mouth, some sort of line has been crossed?